Originally Posted by jovan66102
Originally Posted by BaronVonServers
When the 'republic' failed to be 'liberal' the Germans were well above the transition zone KYJ. Give it up, its a false notion!
Yeah, I noticed he used 1913 as his cut off date. Not sure what significance of that has to do with the failure of the Weimar Republic which didn't come into existence until some years later.
I used to 1913 date b/c it and a 1949 date were given by a chart I saw on Wikipedia which had the estimated GDP per capita of countries and regions in the past.
The significance is that it shows that Germany remained within the zone of transition for liberal democracy (and on the low end at that!) from the period immediately before the First World War all the way through to the creation of west Germany in 1949. Germany could have made a successful transition to liberal democracy, it's certainly possible even at the low end. But it could also have failed, and that, unfortunately, is exactly what happened. As it stands, Germany only transitioned to liberal democracy after World War II, basically b/c the allies forced them to.
My point was basically that Weimar was hardly placed well to become a liberal democracy, and given the devastation of WWI and the hyperinflation, may very well have dropped below the zone of transition!
I wonder if Germany would have transitioned more successfully if they'd kept the Kaiser.....